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ENGLISH - TEST 3 -Class 9 -Full

 

The 3rd written test

ENGLISH 9

 

Period 81

Date of planning:…./…./20....

Date of teaching:…../…./20…..

I. Objectives:

Help the Ss to review vocabulary and structures in Unit 7,8,9. Estimate Ss knowledge.

II. Language content:

- conditional sentences-type 1,2; quantifiers; articles; relative clauses

- Review vocabulary of unit 7,8,9, the items related to recipes and eating habits, tourism, English in the world.

III. Steps:

- Arrangement. - Giving papers. - Observing students doing the test. - Collecting papers.

IV. Time: 45’

TEST MATRIX

45 minute test (40 items/ 10 points)

 

 

 

Knowledge/ Skills

 

Items/

Points

Remember

30%

Understand

40%

Apply

(low) 20%

Apply

(high)

10%

Total items

Total points

 

I.Pronunciation

No.of items

1

1

1

1

4

 

 

No.of points

0,25

0,25

0,25

0,25

 

1,0

II.Vocabulary - Grammar

No.of items

2

3

2

1

8

 

 

No.of points

0,5

0,75

0,5

0,25

 

2,0

 

III.Reading

No.of items

3

4

2

1

10

 

 

No.of points

0,75

1,0

0,5

0,25

 

2,5

 

IV.Writing

No.of items

3

4

2

1

10

 

 

No.of points

0,75

1,0

0,5

0,25

 

2,5

 

V.Listening

No.of items

2

3

2

1

8

 

 

No.of points

0,5

0,75

0,5

0,25

 

2,0

 

Total

No.of items

12

16

8

4

40

 

 

No.of points

3

4

2

1

 

10

 

TRUNG HUNG SECONDARY SCHOOL                      THE THIRD TEST

Name:................................

Class: 9

I. PRONUNCIATION

  1. I. Circle the word with the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others. ( 0.5 point)

1. A. hobby B. honest C. humor D. hole

2. A. intermediate B. immediate C. medium D. medicine

  1. II. Circle the word whose main stressed syllable is different from the rest. ( 0.5 point)

1. A. impression B. adventure C. luggage D. develop

2. A. remember B. question C. accept D. decide 

II. VOCABULARY – GRAMMAR: Choose the best answer. ( 2.0 points )

  1. . They have been learning English ......................I was eight years old.

A. since B. to C. for D. from

2. If you study hard, you ................... the examination next month.

A. passing B. to pass C. pass D. will pass

3. Is English a (n).......................... language in your country ?

A. mother B. official C. living D. old

4. The man.................... won the competition is my English teacher.

A. who B. which C. whom D. whose

  1. The book ................ I liked was the detective story.

A. who B. which C. whom D. where

6. – What does your father do? -He’s ..................... engineer.

A. a B. the C. an D. x

7. Manh ................ up some Spanish when he was living in Mexico.

A. took B. picked C. looked D. learnt

8. If Mr. Cuong had an IELTS certificate, he ........ a good job.

A. will get B. getting C. would get D. got

III. READING:

Question I.Read the passage and fill each blank with a word / phrase from the list (1.5 points)

After  English        surprised            learning             picked             over

When I first started (1) ............ English ten years ago . I could hardly say a word - hello , goodbye, thank you was just about it ! I went to classes two evenings a week and I was (2) ............ at how quickly I made progress during the course we learned lots of vocabulary and studied grammar rules . The thing I enjoyed most was being able to practice (3) ............ with the other students in my class. (4) ................ two years I went to England to a language school .It was in Cambridge . I did a three – week course at a very good school and I stayed with a local family . It was a fantastic experience and I (5) .............up a lot of new language from speaking with my host family and with other students from all (6) ............ the world . I really improved my pronunciation as well. When I got back to Spain , I was so much more confident . I could actually hold a conversation with my teacher in English.

Question II: Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C, or D best fits each space (1.0 point)

Last week I went to an International Food Festival taking place in Hai Phong. Because the festival only (1)……………. place for one day, hundreds of people crowded into it. It was the biggest food festival I had ever seen. There (2) ………… thirty countries participating in the festival. They brought with them traditional foodspecialties which reflected their unique national cuisine

I was really impressed (3)……………… the Cobb salad. It is an American garden salad made from chopped salad greens, tomato, bacon, chicken breast, hard-boiled egg, avocado, cheese, and red-wine vinaigrette. Although the salad requires quite a few ingredients, it is quick to make. The American chef at the festival (4) ………………… me the way to make the salad and it took me only 15 minutes to complete. How amazing! The next day I made Cobb salad for my mum for lunch, and she loved it right away.

1. A. ran B took C. went D. found
2. A. are B. is C. was D. were
3.A. by B. at C. in D. on
4. A. said B. asked C. gave D. showed

IV. WRITING:

Question I. Choose the correct form of the verbs to complete the sentence.(1.0point)

1. If we .............. water carefully, more people will have fresh water.

A.use B.used C.using D.have used

2. I think you should spend more time .............. your pronunciation.

A. improve B.improving C.improved D.to improve

3. When he came, we .............. happily about the class meeting.

A.talked B.talking C.were talking D.talk

4. If Quyen didn’t have such a lot of English homework , he .......... to the party.

A.goes B.went C.had gone D.would go

Question II. Rewrite the second sentences with the words given.( 1.0 point)

1. I learned a few words of English on holiday. (picked)

-> …………….........................................................................................................

2. You should ride your bike carefully, or you may have an accident.

-> If you …..............................................................................................................

3. My father can speak basic English. (get by)

->………… ………………………………………………………………………..

4. I’m not good at cooking, so I can’t become a chef.

  1. If ………………………………………………………………………………….

Question III. Combine each pair of sentences to make a complete sentence, using a suitable relative pronoun ( 0.5 points)

1. The dishes are so hot. My mother has cooked them.

……………………………………………………..……….…………………………

 

2. Some people talk too loudly in public places. I don’t like them.

……………………………………………………………………………………….

V.LISTENING (2.0 points)

  1. I. Radio is asking two students about their eating habits. Listen to what they say and decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F).( 1.0 point)

..............1. Nicolas gets up too late to have a real breakfast.

..............2. It’s difficult to buy his lunch at the school canteen.

..............3. He’s considering changing his eating habits.

..............4. She thinks breakfast should include nutritious food.

  1. II. Listen and choose the best word to complete the sentence (1.0 point)

1.Tourism plays an important …………… in the development of many nations.

A.part B.parts C.past D.pasts

2. Modern transport …………….. tourism.

A. promote B. promoted C. promotes D. proves

3.Tourism …………………. to the income of a country.

A. contribute B. contributed C. contributing D. contributes

4. People’s …………………… get better with the development of tourism.

A. lives B. life C. live D. like

 


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